I have three questions about the slavery’s morality in Islam :1) It is known that Islam sanctions physical intercourse between a master and his slave-girl without marriage, and it doesn’t seem that the slave-girl consent is a necessary condition in the process (am I mistaken?). Consequently our opponents accuse Islam of sanctioning rape on slave (especially war captives). What can we respond to that? 2) Please clarify the concept of ‘tahleel’ : could a master ‘loan’ his slave-girl to a friend for erotic pleasure and then get her back? If yes, again does the slave-girl have any say in the process?3) I’ve seen that someone who buys a married slave-girl may separate her from her husband. How is this fair?I know this is a sensitive topic, but as our faith is often under attack we need to be able to respond to these accusations.